100% Free Oracle Cloud 1z0-1084-24 Dumps PDF Demo Cert Guide Cover [Q60-Q84]

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PDF Exam Material 2025 Realistic 1z0-1084-24 Dumps Questions


Oracle 1z0-1084-24 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Cloud Native Fundamentals: This section tests the ability of cloud developers and architects to understand the core principles of cloud native development. Candidates are expected to explain the fundamentals of cloud native and discuss the key pillars that support cloud native approaches.
Topic 2
  • Leveraging Serverless Technologies for Cloud Native Development: This part of the exam evaluates the ability to develop serverless applications using Oracle Functions. Candidates should be able to create API gateways to manage traffic from API clients and route it to back-end services, as well as establish integrations between systems using the OCI streaming service.
Topic 3
  • Monitoring & Troubleshooting Cloud Native Applications: This section assesses candidates' skills in monitoring and troubleshooting cloud native applications. They must utilize the OCI Monitoring service to view metrics and the OCI Logging service to manage and search logs effectively.
Topic 4
  • Testing and Securing Cloud Native Applications: Cloud engineers and developers are tested on their ability to analyze and evaluate cloud native testing methodologies, developing effective strategies for testing applications in a cloud-native environment.
Topic 5
  • Cloud Native Applications and Containerization: Candidates must demonstrate their knowledge of Docker, including its architecture and components, to effectively manage containerized applications. This includes using Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Registry (OCIR) to pull and push container images.

 

NEW QUESTION # 60
A company is developing a new application that needs to process transactions in real time. The company wants to ensure that all transactions are processed in order and that no transaction is lost. Which of these is a correct strategy for leveraging OCI Queue in this scenario?

  • A. Use a single queue to process all transactions.
  • B. Use a separate queue for each application instance.
  • C. Use a priority queue to prioritize requests.
  • D. Use a separate queue for each type of transaction.

Answer: A

Explanation:
OCI Queue is a service for enabling asynchronous (decoupled) communication in a serverless manner3. Queue handles high-volume transactional data that requires independent processing without loss or duplication3. Queue supports ordering of messages within a queue by using the FIFO (first-in-first-out) delivery option3. Therefore, using a single queue to process all transactions ensures that all transactions are processed in order and that no transaction is lost. Verified References: Overview of Queue


NEW QUESTION # 61
Which "Action Type" option is NOT available in an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Events rule definition?

  • A. Functions
  • B. Email
  • C. Streaming
  • D. Notifications

Answer: B

Explanation:
An action is a response that you define for the rule to perform when the filter finds a matching event1. The action type specifies the service that you want to invoke by delivering the event message1. The following action types are available in OCI Events rule definition1:
* Streaming: Send to a stream from Oracle Streaming Service.
* Notifications: Send to an Oracle Notification Service topic.
* Functions: Send to an Oracle Functions Service endpoint. Email is not a valid action type for OCI Events rule definition. To send an email as an action, you need to use the Notifications service and subscribe to a topic with an email protocol2.


NEW QUESTION # 62
Your team has chosen to use master encryption key (MEK) within an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Vault for encrypting Kubernetes secrets associated with your microservice deployments in OCI Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE) clusters so that you can easily manage key rotation. Which of the following is NOT valid about rotating keys in the OCI Vault service?

  • A. When you rotate an MEK, a new key version is automatically generated.
  • B. Once rotated, older key versions can be used for encryption until they are deleted.
  • C. Both software and HSM-protected MEKS can be rotated.
  • D. Each key version is tracked internally with separate unique OCIDS.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is: "Once rotated, older key versions can be used for encryption until they are deleted." The statement that is NOT valid about rotating keys in the OCI Vault service is: "Once rotated, older key versions can be used for encryption until they are deleted." In the OCI Vault service, when you rotate a master encryption key (MEK), a new key version is automatically generated. However, once a key is rotated and a new version is created, the older key versions are no longer usable for encryption. The purpose of key rotation is to ensure that the encryption keys are regularly updated and that older keys are no longer used to protect sensitive data. This enhances security by minimizing the impact of potential key compromises. The other statements mentioned are valid: Both software and hardware security module (HSM)-protected MEKs can be rotated. This provides flexibility in choosing the type of MEK and ensures that key rotation can be performed regardless of the encryption method used. Each key version is tracked internally with separate unique OCIDs (Oracle Cloud Identifiers). This allows for easy management and tracking of different key versions within the OCI Vault service. In summary, the statement that is NOT valid is the one suggesting that older key versions can still be used for encryption until they are deleted. Key rotation is designed to ensure the use of the latest key version and to retire older key versions to enhance security.


NEW QUESTION # 63
You encounter an unexpected error when invoking Oracle Functions from your Cloud Shell session named myfunction in the myapp application. Which option will get you more information on the error?

  • A. fn --debug invoke myapp myfunction
  • B. Contact Oracle support with your error message
  • C. DEBUG=1 fn invoke myapp myfunction
  • D. fn --verbose invoke myapp myfunction

Answer: C

Explanation:
The option that will get you more information on the error when invoking Oracle Functions from your Cloud Shell session is: "DEBUG=1 fn invoke myapp myfunction". Setting the environment variable DEBUG=1 before invoking the function using the fn command allows you to enable debug mode, which provides more detailed information about the execution of the function. This can be useful for troubleshooting and understanding the root cause of the error. By using the command "DEBUG=1 fn invoke myapp myfunction", the function invocation will be executed with debug mode enabled, and additional debug information will be displayed in the console output. This information can include stack traces, detailed error messages, and other relevant details that can help identify and resolve the issue. Using the verbose option (--verbose) or debug option (--debug) with the fn command may also provide additional information, but the specific behavior may depend on the version and configuration of the fn CLI tool. While contacting Oracle support with the error message is always an option, enabling debug mode using the DEBUG=1 environment variable provides immediate access to more detailed information and can help in diagnosing and resolving the error more efficiently.


NEW QUESTION # 64
What is the difference between continuous delivery and continuous deployment in the DevOps methodology?
(Choose the best answer.)

  • A. Continuous delivery involves automation of developer tasks, whereas continuous deployment involves manual operational tasks.
  • B. Continuous delivery utilizes automatic deployment to a development environment, whereas continuous deployment involves automatic deployment to a production environment.
  • C. Continuous delivery requires automatic linting, whereas continuous deployment testing must be run manually.
  • D. Continuous delivery is a process that Initiates deployment manually, whereas continuous deployment is based on automating the deployment process.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The two correct differences between continuous delivery and continuous deployment in the DevOps lifecycle are: Continuous delivery is a process that initiates deployment manually, while continuous deployment is based on automating the deployment process. In continuous delivery, the software is ready for deployment, but the decision to deploy is made manually by a human. On the other hand, continuous deployment automates the deployment process, and once the software passes all the necessary tests and quality checks, it is automatically deployed without human intervention. Continuous delivery utilizes automatic deployment to a development environment, while continuous deployment involves automatic deployment to a production environment. In continuous delivery, the software is automatically deployed to a development or staging environment for further testing and validation. However, the actual deployment to the production environment is performed manually. In continuous deployment, the software is automatically deployed to the production environment, eliminating the need for manual intervention in the deployment process. These differences highlight the level of automation and human involvement in the deployment process between continuous delivery and continuous deployment approaches in the DevOps lifecycle.


NEW QUESTION # 65
You have two microservices, A and B, running in production. Service A relies on APIs from service B. You want to test changes to service A without deploying all of its dependencies, which include service B. Which approach should you take to test service A?

  • A. Test against production APIs.
  • B. There is no need to explicitly test APIs.
  • C. Test using API mocks.
  • D. Test the APIs in private environments.

Answer: C

Explanation:
API mocking is a technique that simulates the behavior of real APIs without requiring the actual implementation or deployment of the dependent services1. API mocking allows you to test changes to service A without deploying all of its dependencies, such as service B, by creating mock responses for the APIs that service A relies on1. API mocking has several benefits, such as1:
* Faster testing: You can test your service A without waiting for service B to be ready or available, which reduces the testing time and feedback loop.
* Isolated testing: You can test your service A in isolation from service B, which eliminates the possibility of external factors affecting the test results or causing errors.
* Controlled testing: You can test your service A with different scenarios and edge cases by creating mock responses that mimic various situations, such as success, failure, timeout, etc.


NEW QUESTION # 66
Which is NOT a valid backend-type option available when configuring an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) API Gateway Deployment?

  • A. ORACLE STREAMS_BACKEND
  • B. ORACLE_FUNCTIONS_BACKEND
  • C. HTTP_BACKEND

Answer: A

Explanation:
When configuring an OCI API Gateway deployment, you need to specify the backend type for each route in your API deployment specification3. The backend type determines how the API gateway handles requests to that route and forwards them to the appropriate backend service3. The following backend types are valid options for an OCI API Gateway deployment3:
* HTTP_BACKEND: The API gateway forwards requests to an HTTP or HTTPS URL as the backend service.
* ORACLE_FUNCTIONS_BACKEND: The API gateway invokes an Oracle Functions function as the backend service.
* STOCK_RESPONSE_BACKEND: The API gateway returns a stock response without invoking any backend service. ORACLE STREAMS_BACKEND is not a valid backend type for an OCI API Gateway deployment. Oracle Streams is a fully managed, scalable, and durable messaging service that you can use to ingest and consume large amounts of data in real-time4. However, Oracle Streams is not supported as a backend service for an OCI API Gateway deployment.


NEW QUESTION # 67
When developing microservices, each one can be developed in the language of choice. Which term describes this type of development? (Choose the best answer.)

  • A. DevOps
  • B. Agile
  • C. Distributed
  • D. Polyglot

Answer: C

Explanation:
The term that describes developing microservices in different languages of choice is "Polyglot." In a polyglot architecture, each microservice is developed using the most appropriate programming language or technology stack for its specific requirements. This approach allows developers to leverage the strengths of different languages and frameworks, enabling them to use the most suitable tool for each microservice while still maintaining interoperability between services.


NEW QUESTION # 68
Which is NOT a valid option to execute a function deployed in Oracle Functions?

  • A. Invoke from the Fn Project CLI.
  • B. Trigger by an event in the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Events service.
  • C. Send signed HTTP requests to the function's invoke endpoint.
  • D. Invoke from the OCI CLI.
  • E. Invoke from the Docker CLI.

Answer: E

Explanation:
The correct answer is: Invoke from the Docker CLI. Explanation: Executing a function deployed in Oracle Functions is typically done using the following options: Invoke from the Fn Project CLI: The Fn Project CLI provides a command-line interface specifically designed for interacting with Oracle Functions. You can use commands like fn invoke to invoke a function. Trigger by an event in the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Events service: You can configure events in OCI to trigger your function based on various criteria, such as object storage events, resource state changes, or scheduled events. Invoke from the OCI CLI: The OCI CLI (Command Line Interface) allows you to interact with various services in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure, including Oracle Functions. You can use the fn invoke command to invoke a function. Send signed HTTP requests to the function's invoke endpoint: Oracle Functions provides an HTTP endpoint that can be used to invoke functions. You can send signed HTTP requests to this endpoint using tools or programming languages that support making HTTP requests. On the other hand, invoking a function deployed in Oracle Functions using the Docker CLI is not a valid option. The Docker CLI is primarily used for managing Docker containers and images, and it does not provide a direct mechanism for invoking functions in Oracle Functions.


NEW QUESTION # 69
A developer using Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) API Gateway needs to authenticate the API requests to their web application. The authentication process must be implemented using a custom scheme which accepts string-based parameters from the API caller. Which approach should the developer use in this scenario?

  • A. Create a cross account functions authorizer.
  • B. Create an authorizer function using OCI Identity and Access Management 91AM) based authentication.
  • C. Create an authorizer function using request header authorization.
  • D. Create an authorizer function using token-based authorization.

Answer: D

Explanation:
In the given scenario, the developer should use the approach of creating an authorizer function using token- based authorization. Token-based authorization is a commonly used approach for authenticating API requests.
It involves generating and issuing tokens to API callers, which they can then include in the requests they make to the API. The tokens serve as proof of authentication and are validated by the server to ensure the caller's identity and access rights. By creating an authorizer function using token-based authorization, the developer can implement a custom scheme that accepts string-based parameters from the API caller. This allows the developer to define their own authentication logic and validate the provided tokens according to their requirements. The authorizer function can be configured in the OCI API Gateway to be invoked before forwarding the request to the web application. It will perform the necessary token validation and authentication checks, allowing only authorized requests to access the protected resources of the web application.


NEW QUESTION # 70
Which feature is typically NOT associated with Cloud Native?

  • A. Application Servers
  • B. Declarative APIs
  • C. Containers
  • D. Immutable Infrastructure
  • E. Service Meshes

Answer: A

Explanation:
The feature that is typically NOT associated with Cloud Native is "Application Servers." Cloud Native architecture emphasizes lightweight, scalable, and containerized deployments, which often replace traditional monolithic application servers. Instead of relying on application servers, Cloud Native applications are typically deployed as containerized microservices that can be orchestrated and managed using container orchestration platforms like Kubernetes. This approach enables greater flexibility, scalability, and agility in deploying and managing applications. While application servers have been widely used in traditional application architectures, they are not a characteristic feature of Cloud Native architectures. Cloud Native architectures focus on containerization, declarative APIs, immutable infrastructure, and service meshes to enable efficient and scalable deployment and management of applications.


NEW QUESTION # 71
Which option best defines microservices?

  • A. A statically typed and compiled language.
  • B. A finely tuned piece of software that performs a single or small collection of tasks.
  • C. An open-source system for automating deployment, scaling, and management of containerized applications.
  • D. An organized collection of structured information or data, typically stored electronically in a computer system.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is: "A finely tuned piece of software that performs a single or small collection of tasks." Microservices are a software architectural approach where a system is decomposed into small, independent services that are responsible for performing a specific set of tasks. Each microservice is designed to be focused, finely tuned, and highly cohesive, handling a single or a small collection of related tasks. This granularity allows for better scalability, maintainability, and flexibility in building complex applications. The other options provided do not accurately define microservices: An open-source system for automating deployment, scaling, and management of containerized applications refers to a container orchestration tool like Kubernetes, which can be used to manage microservices but is not a definition of microservices itself. A statically typed and compiled language describes a type of programming language characteristic and is not specific to the concept of microservices. An organized collection of structured information or data, typically stored electronically in a computer system is a definition of a database or data storage system and is unrelated to microservices.


NEW QUESTION # 72
A developer has created another version of a microservice and wants 10% of the traffic to flow towards it for testing purposes. The application is already configured using OCI (Oracle Cloud Infrastructure) Service Mesh. Which of the following steps is the right approach to achieve this goal?

  • A. Create a new Kubernetes deployment for the new version of the microservice and set the traffic splitting percentage to 10% in the Kubernetes service manifest.
  • B. Create a new entry in the routeRules field of the virtual service route table manifest to configure traffic splitting between the old and new versions of the microservice and set the percentage to 10%.
  • C. Create a new entry in the routeRules field of the ingress gateway route table manifest to configure traffic splitting between the old and new versions of the microservice and set the percentage to 10%.
  • D. Use Kubernetes HPA (Horizontal Pod Autoscaler) to scale the new version of the microservice to handle 10% of the traffic automatically.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 73
Your organization is developing serverless applications with Oracle Functions. Many functions will need to store state data in a database, which will require using appropriate credentials. However, your corporate security standards mandate encryption of secret information, such as database passwords. How would you address this security requirement?

  • A. Use OCI Console to enter the password in the function configuration section in the provided input field.
  • B. Encrypt the password using the OCI Vault service and then decrypt this password in your function code with the generated key.
  • C. Leverage application-level configuration variables to store passwords because they are automatically encrypted by Oracle Functions.
  • D. Use the OCI Vault service to auto-encrypt the password and then set an application-level configuration variable to reference the auto-decrypted password inside your function container.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The best way to store and use secret information, such as database passwords, in Oracle Functions is to use the OCI Vault service. The OCI Vault service provides encryption and decryption capabilities for sensitive data. You can use the OCI Vault service to encrypt the password and store it as an application-level configuration variable. Then, you can use the generated key to decrypt the password in your function code when you need to access the database. Verified References: Oracle Functions: Using Key Management To Encrypt And Decrypt Configuration Variables


NEW QUESTION # 74
(CHK_4>2) You have a scenario where a DevOps team wants to store secrets in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Vault so that it can inject the secrets into an app's environment variables (for example, MYSQL_DB_PASSWD) at deployment time. Which is NOT valid about managing secrets in the OCI Vault service?

  • A. A secret reuse rule prevents the use of secret contents across different versions of a secret.
  • B. You can manually create new secrets as well as new secret versions using the OCI Console:
  • C. A unique OCID is automatically generated for each secret and remains unchanged even when creating a new secret version.
  • D. New secret versions automatically expire in 90 days unless you configure an expiry rule.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is: "A unique OCID is automatically generated for each secret and remains unchanged even when creating a new secret version." The statement that is NOT valid about managing secrets in the OCI Vault service is: "A unique OCID is automatically generated for each secret and remains unchanged even when creating a new secret version." In OCI Vault, a secret is identified by its OCID (Oracle Cloud Identifier), which is a unique identifier for each resource in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure. However, when a new secret version is created for an existing secret, the OCID remains the same for the secret itself, but a new OCID is generated for the secret version. This allows you to track and manage different versions of a secret while maintaining a consistent OCID for the secret itself. The other statements mentioned are valid: You can manually create new secrets as well as new secret versions using the OCI Console. This means you have control over creating and managing secrets within the Vault service. A secret reuse rule prevents the use of secret contents across different versions of a secret. This ensures that each secret version maintains its own unique set of contents and avoids accidental reuse or sharing of secrets across versions. By default, new secret versions automatically expire in 90 days unless you configure an expiry rule. This helps enforce good security practices by automatically rotating secrets periodically, reducing the risk of unauthorized access in case of compromise. Therefore, the statement that is NOT valid is the one regarding the uniqueness and consistency of the OCID when creating new secret versions.


NEW QUESTION # 75
As a developer, you have been tasked with implementing a microservices-based application. Which THREE technologies are best suited to accomplish the task? (Choose three.)

  • A. Docker
  • B. Big Data
  • C. Service Mesh
  • D. Terraform
  • E. Kubemetes
  • F. Anomaly Detection

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:
The three technologies best suited for implementing a microservices-based application are: Service Mesh: A service mesh is a dedicated infrastructure layer that provides features like service discovery, load balancing, encryption, authentication, and observability for microservices. It helps in managing the communication and interactions between microservices in a scalable and secure manner. Kubernetes: Kubernetes is an open- source container orchestration platform that enables the deployment, scaling, and management of containerized applications. It provides features like automated scaling, service discovery, load balancing, and self-healing capabilities, which are essential for managing microservices in a distributed environment.
Docker: Docker is a popular containerization platform that allows packaging applications and their dependencies into lightweight containers. It provides a consistent and portable environment for running microservices, enabling easy deployment and scalability. Docker also facilitates isolation and resource efficiency, making it an ideal choice for deploying microservices. While Big Data, Anomaly Detection, and Terraform are valuable technologies, they are not specifically focused on enabling the implementation of microservices-based applications.


NEW QUESTION # 76
(CHK_1>3) You have an e-commerce application that loads customers' transactional data into the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Streaming service. The data must now be extracted and transformed before sending it to a third-party REST endpoint. You have been directed to leverage the OCI Service Connector Hub to automate this process. Which configuration option would address this requirement?

  • A. Configure a new service connector as follows: * Source: Streaming * Task: Functions * Target: API Gateway
  • B. Configure a new service connector as follows: * Source: Streaming * Task: Functions * Target:
    Functions
  • C. Configure a new service connector as follows: * Source: Streaming * Task: API Gateway * Target:
    Notifications
  • D. Configure a new service connector as follows: * Source: Streaming * Task: API Gateway * Target:
    Functions
  • E. Configure a new service connector as follows: * Source: Streaming * Task: None * Target: Notifications

Answer: E

Explanation:
To address the requirement of extracting and transforming data from the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Streaming service and sending it to a third-party REST endpoint using the OCI Service Connector Hub, the best configuration option is: Configure a new service connector as follows: * Source: Streaming * Task: None
* Target: Notifications By selecting the Streaming service as the source, you can capture the transactional data from the stream. Since there is a need to transform and send the data to a third-party REST endpoint, you don't need to specify any specific task in the connector. The target is set to Notifications, which allows you to send the transformed data to an endpoint outside of the OCI environment. Notifications can be configured to deliver the data to various supported destinations, including HTTP endpoints, email addresses, and more. This configuration enables you to automate the process of extracting data from the streaming service and sending it to the desired third-party REST endpoint, fulfilling the requirement of extracting, transforming, and forwarding the data.


NEW QUESTION # 77
(CHK_4>3) Your development team decides to create and deploy some business logic to serverless Oracle Functions. You are asked to help facilitate the monitoring, logging, and tracing of these services. Which is NOT valid about troubleshooting Oracle Functions?

  • A. Oracle Functions invocation is enabled by default
  • B. Oracle Functions tracing is enabled at the function level.
  • C. Oracle Functions metrics are available at both the function and application level.
  • D. Oracle Functions invocation logs are enabled at the application level.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The option that is NOT valid about troubleshooting Oracle Functions is: "Oracle Functions tracing is enabled at the function level." In Oracle Functions, tracing is not enabled at the function level. Instead, tracing is enabled at the application level. When you enable tracing for an application, it applies to all the functions within that application. Tracing allows you to capture detailed information about the execution flow and performance of the functions, helping you analyze and debug issues. The other options mentioned are valid:
Oracle Functions invocation logs are enabled at the application level. Invocation logs provide visibility into the details of function invocations, including input, output, duration, and any error messages. These logs are generated and stored by Oracle Functions, and you can access them for troubleshooting and monitoring purposes. Oracle Functions invocation is enabled by default. Once you deploy a function, it becomes invocable by default. You can configure different triggers to invoke the function, such as HTTP requests, scheduled events, or events from other Oracle Cloud Infrastructure services. Oracle Functions metrics are available at both the function and application level. Metrics provide insights into the usage, performance, and behavior of functions. They can include metrics such as invocations per minute, average duration, and error counts. These metrics can be viewed in the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Console or accessed programmatically through APIs. It's important to note that the specific configuration and behavior of monitoring, logging, and tracing in Oracle Functions may depend on the version, configuration, and options you have chosen. It is recommended to refer to the Oracle Functions documentation and consult the official documentation for accurate and up-to-date information on troubleshooting and monitoring Oracle Functions.


NEW QUESTION # 78
Which is NOT a valid use case for leveraging the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Events service?

  • A. Publishing all the OCI resource events in a specific compartment to the OCI Streaming service for later analysis.
  • B. Triggering a notification action when a function completes its execution.
  • C. Capturing the OCI Monitoring service alarms and invoking autoscaling of compute instances.
  • D. Triggering a function deployed in Oracle Functions when new files are uploaded to an OCI Object Storage bucket.
  • E. Publishing a notification when long-lived tasks complete, such as an OCI Autonomous Database backup completion.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The use case that is NOT a valid use case for leveraging the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Events service is "Capturing the OCI Monitoring service alarms and invoking autoscaling of compute instances." The OCI Events service is designed to provide event-driven architecture and enable automated responses to events occurring within the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure. It allows you to react to changes and activities happening within your OCI resources. The Events service can be used to trigger actions based on events like file uploads, resource changes, or task completions. However, capturing the OCI Monitoring service alarms and invoking autoscaling of compute instances is not a direct functionality provided by the OCI Events service. Autoscaling based on monitoring metrics is typically handled by the OCI Autoscaling service, which is specifically designed for that purpose. The OCI Monitoring service provides monitoring and alerting capabilities, while the Autoscaling service handles the dynamic scaling of compute instances based on predefined policies and thresholds.


NEW QUESTION # 79
You are building a container image and pushing it to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Registry (OCIR). You need to ensure that these images never get deleted from the repository. Which action should you take?

  • A. Set global policy of image retention to "Retain All Images".
  • B. Edit the tenancy global retention policy.
  • C. Create a group and assign a policy to perform lifecycle operations on images.
  • D. Write a policy to limit access to the specific repository in your compartment.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is: "Edit the tenancy global retention policy." To ensure that container images never get deleted from the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Registry (OCIR), you should edit the tenancy global retention policy. The tenancy global retention policy is a setting that determines the retention behavior for all the images in the OCIR across the entire tenancy. By editing this policy, you can define the retention behavior that suits your requirements. To edit the tenancy global retention policy, you would typically perform the following steps: Access the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Console and navigate to the OCIR service. Go to the
"Policies" section or "Settings" section in the OCIR service. Locate the tenancy global retention policy settings. Modify the retention policy to specify the desired retention behavior. In this case, you would set the policy to retain all images, ensuring they are never deleted from the repository. By setting the global policy of image retention to "Retain All Images," you can ensure that the container images in your OCIR repository are permanently retained and not subject to deletion based on any default or automatic retention rules. The other options mentioned are not directly related to ensuring that container images are never deleted from the repository: Creating a group and assigning a policy to perform lifecycle operations on images or writing a policy to limit access to the specific repository in your compartment are access control measures and do not address the retention of images. Setting the global policy of image retention to "Retain All Images" is the correct action to achieve the desired outcome of preventing image deletion from the repository.


NEW QUESTION # 80
Which testing measure should be considered when using test cases that simultaneously validate a deployment and perform a selected set of functional tasks?

  • A. Functionality
  • B. Resource Utilization
  • C. Scalability
  • D. Robust Deployment
  • E. Resiliency

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is: "Robust Deployment." When using test cases that simultaneously validate a deployment and perform a selected set of functional tasks, the testing measure that should be considered is
"Robust Deployment." Robust Deployment refers to the ability of an application or system to be deployed reliably and consistently, without errors or failures. It involves ensuring that the deployment process is well- defined, automated, and able to handle different scenarios and configurations. When conducting testing that combines the validation of deployment and functional tasks, it is crucial to ensure that the deployment itself is robust. This means verifying that the application or system can be successfully deployed and configured without encountering deployment-related issues such as incorrect configurations, missing dependencies, or compatibility problems. By considering "Robust Deployment" as a testing measure, you can evaluate the reliability and effectiveness of the deployment process, ensuring that the application or system is deployed correctly and ready to perform the selected set of functional tasks.


NEW QUESTION # 81
Which testing strategy achieves high velocity of deployments and releases of cloud native applications?
(Choose the best answer.)

  • A. Automated testing
  • B. A/B testing
  • C. Integration testing
  • D. Penetration testing

Answer: A

Explanation:
The testing strategy that achieves high velocity of deployments and releases of cloud native applications is
"Automated testing." Automated testing involves the use of automated tools and frameworks to execute tests, validate functionality, and detect issues or bugs in an application. By automating the testing process, developers and DevOps teams can rapidly test and validate code changes, ensuring that new features and updates are functioning correctly before being deployed to production. This approach helps increase the speed and efficiency of the testing process, allowing for faster and more frequent deployments of cloud native applications.


NEW QUESTION # 82
You are tasked with developing an application that requires the use of Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) APIs to POST messages to a stream in the OCI Streaming service. Which statement is incorrect? (Choose the best answer.)

  • A. An HTTP 401 will be returned if the client's clock is skewed more than 5 minutes from the server's.
  • B. The request does not require an Authorization header.
  • C. The request must include an authorization signing string including (but not limited to) x-content- sha256, content-type, and content-length headers.
  • D. The Content-Type header must be set to application/json

Answer: B

Explanation:
The statement that is incorrect is: "The request does not require an Authorization header." In order to POST messages to a stream in the OCI Streaming service using OCI APIs, the request does require an Authorization header. The Authorization header is used to provide authentication and ensure the request is authorized to access the stream. The correct approach is to include the Authorization header in the request, along with other required headers such as x-content-sha256, content-type, and content-length. Therefore, the incorrect statement is that the request does not require an Authorization header.\


NEW QUESTION # 83
Your organization has mandated that all deployed container images used for microservices must be signed by a specified master encryption key (MEK). You have appropriately signed the container images as part of your build process, but must now ensure that they are automatically verified when they are deployed to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Container Engine for Kubemetes (OKE) clusters. Which option should be used to mandate image verification when deploying to OKE clusters, assuming that MEK is already stored in an available OCI Vault? (Choose the best answer.)

  • A. Enable image verification policies separately for each Kubemetes pod deployment because this is enforced at the pod level.
  • B. Enable Image verification policies for your OKE service control plane which will enforce this for all OKE clusters.
  • C. Enable image verification policies separately for each node pool within each OKE cluster because this is enforced at the node pool level.
  • D. Enable image verification policies separately for each OKE cluster because this is enforced at the cluster level.
    (Correct)

Answer: D

Explanation:
To mandate image verification when deploying container images to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE) clusters, you should enable image verification policies separately for each OKE cluster. This is enforced at the cluster level. Enabling image verification policies at the cluster level ensures that all container images deployed to the OKE cluster are automatically verified against the specified master encryption key (MEK). This helps maintain the security and integrity of the deployed microservices by ensuring that only signed and trusted container images are used. Enabling image verification policies at the cluster level allows for consistent and centralized enforcement of the verification process across all nodes and node pools within the cluster. It provides a standardized approach to image verification for the entire cluster, simplifying management and ensuring compliance with the organization's mandate. Enabling image verification policies separately for each node pool or at the pod level would introduce complexity and potential inconsistencies in the verification process. Therefore, enforcing image verification at the cluster level is the recommended approach.


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