May-2024 ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL Actual Questions and Braindumps [Q51-Q68]

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May-2024 ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL Actual Questions and Braindumps

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NEW QUESTION # 51
Your manager asked you when testing will be complete. In order to answer this question, you'll most likely use:

  • A. Test progress reports
  • B. Your colleagues advice
  • C. A conversion spreadsheet
  • D. A Test Oracle

Answer: A

Explanation:
When a manager asks when testing will be complete, the most appropriate and informative resource to provide an answer is test progress reports (Option A). Test progress reports contain detailed information on the status of testing activities, including what has been accomplished, what remains to be done, the results of the tests conducted, and any issues or risks that might impact the completion of testing. These reports allow for an informed assessment of the testing progress and estimation of when testing might be completed. Options B, C, and D do not provide the structured, detailed, and specific information required to accurately answer the manager's question about the completion of testing.


NEW QUESTION # 52
What type of testing measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests?

  • A. Structural testing
  • B. Exploratory testing
  • C. Acceptance testing
  • D. Integration testing

Answer: A

Explanation:
Structural testing is a type of testing that measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests. Structural testing, also known as white-box testing or glass-box testing, is based on the internal structure, design, or implementation of the software. Structural testing aims to verify that the software meets the specified quality attributes, such as performance, security, reliability, or maintainability, by exercising the code paths, branches, statements, conditions, or data flows. Structural testing uses various coverage metrics, such as function coverage, line coverage, branch coverage, or statement coverage, to determine how much of the code has been tested and to identify any untested or unreachable parts of the code.
Structural testing can be applied at any level of testing, such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, or acceptance testing, but it is more commonly used at lower levels, where the testers have access to the source code.
The other options are not correct because they are not types of testing that measure their effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests. Acceptance testing is a type of testing that verifies that the software meets the acceptance criteria and the user requirements. Acceptance testing is usually performed by the end-users or customers, who may not have access to the source code or the technical details of the software. Acceptance testing is more concerned with the functionality, usability, or suitability of the software, rather than its internal structure or implementation. Integration testing is a type of testing that verifies that the software components or subsystems work together as expected. Integration testing is usually performed bythe developers or testers, who may use both structural and functional testing techniques to check the interfaces, interactions, or dependencies between the components or subsystems. Integration testing is more concerned with the integration logic, data flow, or communication of the software, rather than its individual lines of code. Exploratory testing is a type of testing that involves simultaneous learning, test design, and test execution. Exploratory testing is usually performed by the testers, who use their creativity, intuition, or experience to explore the software and discover any defects, risks, or opportunities for improvement. Exploratory testing is more concerned with the behavior, quality, or value of the software, rather than its internal structure or implementation. References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, Chapter 4: Test Techniques, Section 4.3: Structural Testing Techniques, Pages 51-54; Chapter
1: Fundamentals of Testing, Section 1.4: Testing Throughout the Software Development Lifecycle, Pages
11-13; Chapter 3: Static Testing, Section 3.4: Exploratory Testing, Pages 40-41.


NEW QUESTION # 53
You are testing a room upgrade system for a hotel. The system accepts three differed types of room (increasing order of luxury): Platinum. Silver and Gold Luxury. ONLY a Preferred Guest Card holder s eligible for an upgrade.
Below you can find the decision table defining the upgrade eligibility:

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
Customer A: Preference Guest Card holder, holding a Silver room
Customer B: Non Preferred Guest Card holder, holding a Platinum room

  • A. Customer A; doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: offers upgrade to Gold luxury room
  • B. Customer A: doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade.
  • C. Customer A: offers upgrade to Gold Luxury room; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade
  • D. Customer A: offers upgrade to Silver room; Customer B: offers upgrade to Silver room.

Answer: C

Explanation:
According to the decision table in the image, a Preferred Guest Card holder with a Silver room is eligible for an upgrade to Gold Luxury (YES), while a non-Preferred Guest Card holder, regardless of room type, is not eligible for any upgrade (NO). Therefore, Customer A (a Preferred Guest Card holder with a Silver room) would be offered an upgrade to Gold Luxury, and Customer B (a non-Preferred Guest Card holder with a Platinum room) would not be offered any upgrade. Reference = The answer is derived directly from the decision table provided in the image; specific ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 documents are not referenced.


NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?

  • A. poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.
  • B. skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.
  • C. problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.
  • D. skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Project risks are the uncertainties or threats that may affect the project objectives, such as scope, schedule, cost, and quality. According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, some of the factors that contribute to project risks are:
Skill and staff shortages: This factor refers to the lack of adequate or qualified human resources to perform the project tasks. This may result in delays, errors, rework, or low productivity.
Problems in defining the right requirements: This factor refers to the difficulties or ambiguities in eliciting, analyzing, specifying, validating, or managing the requirements of the project. This may result in misalignment, inconsistencies, gaps, or changes in the requirements, affecting the project scope and quality.
Contractual issues: This factor refers to the challenges or disputes that may arise from the contractual agreements between the project parties, such as clients, suppliers, vendors, or subcontractors. This may result in legal, financial, or ethical risks, affecting the project delivery and satisfaction.
The other options are not correct because they list factors that contribute to PRODUCT risks, not project risks. Product risks are the uncertainties or threats that may affect the quality or functionality of the software product or system. Some of the factors that contribute to product risks are:
Poor software quality characteristics: This factor refers to the lack of adherence or compliance to the quality attributes or criteria of the software product or system, such as reliability, usability, security, performance, or maintainability. This may result in defects, failures, or dissatisfaction of the users or stakeholders.
Software does not perform its intended functions: This factor refers to the deviation or discrepancy between the expected and actual behavior or output of the software product or system. This may result in errors, faults, or malfunctions of the software product or system.
Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Testing, Section 1.5: Risks and Testing, Pages 14-16.


NEW QUESTION # 55
Which statement about use case testing is true?

  • A. The lest cases are designed to find defects in the data flew.
  • B. The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers
  • C. The test cases are always designed by customers or end users.
  • D. The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Use case testing is a technique that helps identify test cases that exercise the whole system on a transaction by transaction basis from start to finish. Use cases are descriptions of how users interact with the system to achieve a specific goal. Use case testing is not focused on data flow, but rather on process flow. Use case testing can be performed by professional testers, customers or end users, depending on the context. Use case testing does not require the test cases to be designed by customers or end users, but rather by anyone who has access to the use case specifications. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 4, page 36.


NEW QUESTION # 56
A bank software has a feature of locking down accounts that have and overdraft higher than $10,000.
Due to a bug in the code, the system locks down accounts once they reached $1000 overdraft.
Based on this context, which of the following is correct statement

  • A. It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause harm to the end customer, but will cause harm to the company (the bank)
  • B. It is an example of a defect, that if goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer but not to the company (the bank)
  • C. It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause any real harm to either the end customer or to the company (the bank)
  • D. It is an example of a defect that it goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer and to the company (the bank)

Answer: D

Explanation:
A defect is a flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to perform its required function. A defect can cause harm to the end customer, the company, or both, depending on the impact and severity of the failure. In this case, the defect in the code causes the system to lock down accounts that have an overdraft higher than $1000, instead of $10,000. This can cause harm to the end customer, as they may lose access to their funds and face inconvenience or financial difficulties. This can also cause harm to the company, as they may lose customer trust and satisfaction, face legal issues or complaints, or incur additional costs for fixing the defect and restoring the accounts. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 1, page 3-4.


NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following statements is not correct?

  • A. Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity
  • B. Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product
  • C. Looking for defects in a system may require Ignoring system details
  • D. Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity

Answer: C

Explanation:
* Looking for defects in a system does not require ignoring system details, but rather paying attention to them and understanding how they affect the system's quality, functionality, and usability. Ignoring system details could lead to missing important defects or testing irrelevant aspects of the system.
* Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product, especially by the developers or stakeholders who are invested in the product's success. However, identifying defects is not meant to be a personal attack, but rather a constructive feedback that helps to improve the product and ensure its alignment with the requirements and expectations of the users and clients.
* Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity, as testers need to anticipate and explore the possible ways that the system could fail, malfunction, or behave unexpectedly.
Professional pessimism means being skeptical and critical of the system's quality and reliability, while curiosity means being eager and interested in finding out the root causes and consequences of the defects.
* Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity, as it involves finding and reporting the flaws and weaknesses of the system, rather than creating or enhancing it. However, testing is actually a constructive activity, as it contributes to the system's improvement, verification, validation, and optimization, and ultimately to the delivery of a high-quality product that meets the needs and expectations of the users and clients.
References =
* ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 7-8, 10-11, 13-14, 16-17, 19-20,
22-23, 25-26, 28-29, 31-32, 34-35, 37-38, 40-41, 43-44, 46-47, 49-50, 52-53, 55-56, 58-59, 61-62,
64-65, 67-68, 70-71, 73-74, 76-77, 79-80, 82-83, 85-86, 88-89, 91-92, 94-95, 97-98, 100-101, 103-104,
106-107, 109-110, 112-113, 115-116, 118-119, 121-122, 124-125, 127-128, 130-131, 133-134, 136-137,
139-140, 142-143, 145-146, 148-149, 151-152, 154-155, 157-158, 160-161, 163-164, 166-167, 169-170,
172-173, 175-176, 178-179, 181-182, 184-185, 187-188, 190-191, 193-194, 196-197, 199-200, 202-203,
205-206, 208-209, 211-212, 214-215, 217-218, 220-221, 223-224, 226-227, 229-230, 232-233, 235-236,
238-239, 241-242, 244-245, 247-248, 250-251, 253-254, 256-257, 259-260, 262-263, 265-266, 268-269,
271-272, 274-275, 277-278, 280-281, 283-284, 286-287, 289-290, 292-293, 295-296, 298-299, 301-302,
304-305, 307-308, 310-311, 313-314, 316-317, 319-320, 322-323, 325-326, 328-329, 331-332, 334-335,
337-338, 340-341, 343-344, 346-347, 349-350, 352-353, 355-356, 358-359, 361-362, 364-365, 367-368,
370-371, 373-374, 376-377, 379-380, 382-383, 385-386, 388-389, 391


NEW QUESTION # 58
The following chart represents metrics related to testing of a project that was competed. Indicate what is represented by tie lines A, B and the axes X.Y

  • A.
  • B.
  • C.
  • D.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Option D correctly explains what is represented by the lines A, B and the axes X, Y in a testing metrics chart.
According to option D:
* X-axis represents Time
* Y-axis represents Count
* Line A represents Number of open bugs
* Line B represents Total number of executed tests
This information is essential in understanding and analyzing the testing metrics of a completed project.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 2.5.1, Page 35.


NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor m determining the extent of testing required?

  • A. Level of risk of the product or features
  • B. Time available to do testing
  • C. A particular tester involved in testing
  • D. Budget to do testing

Answer: C

Explanation:
The extent of testing required for a software product depends on various factors, such as the level of risk, the budget, and the time available. The level of risk reflects the potential impact of failures on the stakeholders and the environment. The budget determines how much resources can be allocated for testing. The time available defines the schedule and deadlines for testing activities. The particular tester involved in testing is not a deciding factor for the extent of testing required, as testing should be based on objective criteria and not on personal preferences or abilities. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 2, page 14-15.


NEW QUESTION # 60
Which of the following s the most correct statement about state testing techniques?

  • A. Static techniques are always cheaper than dynamic techniques.
  • B. Static techniques find more detects then dynamic techniques.
  • C. Static techniques can be used before all code is ready for execution
  • D. Static techniques can be used by inexperienced users.

Answer: C

Explanation:
State testing techniques are a type of dynamic testing techniques that are based on the behavior of the system under test for different input conditions and events. Dynamic testing techniques require the system to be executed with test cases, whereas static testing techniques do not. Static testing techniques can be applied before the code is ready for execution, such as reviews, inspections, walkthroughs, and static analysis. Static testing techniques can help find defects early in the development process, improve the quality of the code, and reduce the cost and effort of dynamic testing. References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, Page 281; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Page 292


NEW QUESTION # 61
Who of the following has the best knowledge to decide what tests in a test project should be automated?

  • A. The customer
  • B. The test leader
  • C. The developer
  • D. The development manager

Answer: B

Explanation:
The test leader is the person who is responsible for planning, monitoring, and controlling the test activities and resources in a test project. The test leader should have the best knowledge of the test objectives, scope, risks, resources, schedule, and quality criteria. The test leader shouldalso be aware of the test automation criteria, such as the execution frequency, the test support, the team education, the roles and responsibilities, and the devs and testers collaboration1. Based on these factors, the test leader can decide which tests are suitable for automation and which are not, and prioritize them accordingly. The test leader can also coordinate with the test automation engineers, the developers, and the stakeholders to ensure the alignment of the test automation strategy with the test project goals and expectations. References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, Page 152; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Page 403; ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 6, Section 6.1.1, Page 514; Top 8 Test Automation Criteria You Need To Fulfill - QAMIND1


NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following activities is NOT a pan of the fundamental testing process?

  • A. Test status reporting
  • B. Test process improvement
  • C. Archiving automation code
  • D. Build release and maintenance

Answer: D

Explanation:
The fundamental testing process includes activities that are directly related to the planning, preparation, execution, and evaluation of tests, as well as the closure activities of the testing phase. Option D, "Build release and maintenance," falls outside the scope of the fundamental testing process as it relates more to software development and operations rather than specific testing activities. Options A, "Archiving automation code," B, "Test status reporting," and C, "Test process improvement," are all activities that can be part of or associated with the fundamental testing process. Archiving automation code is part of test closure, test status reporting is part of test monitoring and control, and test process improvement can be an outcome of test closure activities.


NEW QUESTION # 63
A team's test strategy was to invest equal effort in testing each of a system's modules. After running one test cycle, it turned out that most of the critical bugs were detected in one of the system's modules.
Which testing principal suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle?

  • A. Pesticide Paradox
  • B. Absence-of-errors fallacy
  • C. Defect clustering
  • D. Early testing

Answer: C

Explanation:
Defect clustering is a testing principle that states that a small number of modules contain most of the defects detected during pre-release testing, or are responsible for most of the operational failures. Defect clustering can be explained by Pareto's principle (also known as the 80-20 rule), which states that approximately 80% of the problems are found in 20% of the modules. Defect clustering suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, as it implies that more effort should be allocated to test the modules that have shown high defect density or criticality. Pesticide paradox is another testing principle that states that if the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually they will no longer find any new defects. Pesticide paradox suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, but not based on defect clustering, but rather on test diversity and coverage. Early testing is a testing principle that states that testing activities should start as early as possible in the software development life cycle and should be focused on defined objectives.
Early testing does not suggest a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, but rather a proactive approach to prevent defects from occurring or propagating. Absence-of-errors fallacy is a testing principle that states that finding and fixing defects does not help if the system built is unusable and does not fulfill the users' needs and expectations. Absence-of-errors fallacy does not suggest a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, but rather a focus on quality attributes and user requirements. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 1, page 9-10.


NEW QUESTION # 64
Which test approach will best fit a new project, with little documentation and high probability for bugs?

  • A. Requirements based testing
  • B. Regression testing
  • C. Metric based approach
  • D. Exploratory testing

Answer: D

Explanation:
Exploratory testing is an approach to testing that emphasizes learning, test design and test execution at the same time. Exploratory testing relies on the tester's skills, creativity and intuition to explore the software under test and discover defects. Exploratory testing is suitable for a new project with little documentation and high probability for bugs, as it can help uncover unknown requirements, assumptions and risks. Exploratory testing is not requirements based testing, which is an approach to testing that derives test cases from documented requirements or specifications. Requirements based testing is not feasible for a new project with little documentation, as it requires clear and complete requirements to be available. Exploratory testing is not metric based approach, which is an approach to testing that uses quantitative measures to monitor and control the testing process and evaluate the quality of the software product. Metric based approach is not effective for a new project with high probability for bugs, as it may not capture all aspects of quality and may lead to false confidence or unrealistic expectations. Exploratory testing is not regression testing, which is an approach to testing that verifies that previously tested software still performs correctly after changes. Regression testing is not relevant for a new project with no previous versions or baselines. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 5, page 47-48.


NEW QUESTION # 65
Which of the following is a function of a dynamic analysis tool?

  • A. Provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items
  • B. Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program
  • C. Execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects
  • D. Provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents

Answer: B

Explanation:
A dynamic analysis tool is a tool that performs analysis of a software product based on its behavior during execution. A dynamic analysis tool can monitor various aspects of a program's run-time performance, such as memory usage, CPU load, response time, or resource leaks. A dynamic analysis tool can monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program, which can help detect defects such as memory leaks, buffer overflows, or memory corruption. A dynamic analysis tool cannot provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents, as this is a function of a test management tool. A dynamic analysis tool cannot execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects, as this is a function of a debugging tool. A dynamic analysis tool cannot provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items, as this is a function of a configuration management tool. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 6, page 56-57.


NEW QUESTION # 66
What is test oracle?

  • A. The source of input conditions
  • B. The source of lest objectives
  • C. The source for the actual results
  • D. The source of expected results

Answer: D

Explanation:
A test oracle is a mechanism or principle that can be used to determine whether the observed behavior or output of a system under test is correct or not1. A test oracle can be based on various sources of expected results, such as specifications, user expectations, previous versions, comparable systems, etc2. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.2.1, Page 91; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, Page 332.


NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following statements about testware are correct?
I When closing the test activities, all the testware resources can be uninstalled and released II All the testware should be subject to Configuration Management III. The testware. at the end of the project, should be transferred to the organization responsible for maintenance IV The developers are responsible for the correct installation of the testware

  • A. I, IV
  • B. II, IV
  • C. I, Ill
  • D. II, Ill

Answer: D

Explanation:
Testware is a term that refers to all artifacts produced during the testing process, such as test plans, test cases, test scripts, test data, test results, defect reports, etc. The following statements about testware are correct:
II) All the testware should be subject to Configuration Management. Configuration management is a process that establishes and maintains consistency among work products throughout their life cycle. Configuration management applies to all testware, as it helps ensure their quality and consistency, track their changes and defects, control their versions and access rights, and link them to other artifacts.
III) The testware at the end of the project should be transferred to the organization responsible for maintenance. Maintenance testing is testing performed on a software product after delivery to correct defects or improve performance or other attributes. Maintenance testing requires testware from previous testing activities or phases, such as test cases, test data, test results, etc. Therefore, the testware at the end of the project should be transferred to the organization responsible for maintenance testing, such as support team or maintenance team. The following statements about testware are incorrect:
I) When closing the test activities, all the testware resources can be uninstalled and released. This statement is incorrect, as some testware resources may still be needed for future testing activities or phases, such as maintenance testing or regression testing. Therefore, when closing the test activities, some testware resources should be archived and stored for future use, while others can be uninstalled and released.
IV) The developers are responsible for the correct installation of the testware. This statement is incorrect, as the testers are responsible for the correct installation of the testware. The testers should ensure that they have access to all necessary testware resources and that they are installed and configured properly before starting the test execution. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 6, page 58-61.


NEW QUESTION # 68
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